https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/576651/can-the-inversion-of-voltage-by-one-half-cycle-of-oscillations-magnetize-a-sta

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Can the inversion of voltage, by one-half cycle of oscillations, magnetize a stationary coil?



If a capacitor is fully saturated throughout the entirety of its oscillating cycles, and positioned next to a very large inductance (possessing a very large back EMF), then this capacitor is incapable of absorbing or discharging. It can merely reflect voltage without any time delay since no current is involved. Thus, the calculation of power will always be negative regardless of the polarity of signs for current versus the voltage phases of oscillations. In other words, these phases will always be in opposition to each other: either the current will be negatively signed and the voltage will be positively signed, or else the current will be positively signed and the voltage will be negatively signed.

Under this condition, can a stationary coil become magnetized without resorting to its movement through a magnetic field? In other words, does the inversion of voltage substitute for Michael Faraday's classical interpretation of his Induction Law? And bypass the requirement for movement?